How true is this statement?

"A woman who has more than one husband will have several sexual partners at the same time and has a high chance of acquiring venereal or sexually transmitted diseases which can also be transmitted back to her husband even if all of them have no extra-marital sex. This is not the case in a man having more than one wife, and none of them having extra-marital sex..."

please...serious answers only...thank you

it is trying to explain why islam allows polygyny and not polyandry...

the statement implies that a woman has a better chance of contracting an std if she has more than one husband but a man with more than one wife has a rather low chance of contracting one...

i really dont understand this logic...maybe if i could see some facts or research that proves this...

It doesn't make sense at all. It says "A woman who has more than one husband will have several sexual partners at the same time" and then it says "transmitted back to her husband even if all of them have no extra-marital sex." How can she have several sexual partners at the same time, but not be having extra-marital sex? And is it saying that all women who have had more than one husband has several sexual partners at the same time? I just don't get the whole statement.

Ohhhh... OK. I see. Knowing that they mean more than one husband at the SAME TIME...no, it doesn't make sense to me. It sounds like they're just trying to make the women sound like filthy sluts. Just a typical male polygamist excuse.

more than one sexual partner can very much infect you if that personis a carrier or has it and dont know he does as far as a husband or husbands yes they can transmit it as well if not known to them and are sexualey active . it onley takes on to give this to many . ?