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Can someone translate this medical diagnosis for me?


There appears to be a rotary levoscoliosis with the apex of approximately T12. There is a spur formation anteriorly. It is most apparent at the T12- and L2-L3 level. Disc space narrowing at T12-L1. There is narrowing and sclerosis about the posterior joints. There is no spondylolisthesis or spondylolysis. Transverse processes and pedicles are intact as are the presacral lines. There is some calcification involving the abdominal aorta.

IMPRESSION: Degenerative changes and atherosclerotic disease. No acute process.

This is for my stepfather. I already know what and where the T12-L1,2,3 are. Could someone just put this into plain English as to what is wrong with him.

Thanks!

sounds to me like he has degenerative joint and disc disease. i also have this and i am 40 years old. mine is due to severe scoliosis. possibly sounds like there may be some bone spurs there too. ask the dr to spell it out for you in plain english.

Sounds to me like a comprssed disc in his spine or just plain, old, really bad arthritis.

I'm not a nurse or anything, but it sounds like his problem is because the bones narrow at the joints and they're isn't enough room for the disks?

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