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Can a drug designed to cure Candidiasis if ingested by a healthy person, induce it's syptoms by antiibodies?


In other words, can the drug create syptoms of Candidiasis by making the immune system produce antibodies which in turn induce syptoms?

Only if the 'drug' immunologically mimics Candida. I am not aware of any drug that mimics Candida in this manner.

No.

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