Question about differential diagnosis-Schizophrenia/Bereav... for those that know a lot about psychology.?

I know that major depression and schizophrenia can have some of the same symptoms. And according to the diagnostic criteria, a person should be diagnosed w/Major Depression before Schizophrenia if it meets certain guidelines in the diagnostic criteria (ie. mood congruent psychosis, etc.) So, what if a person had bereavement for 5 years, and then finally developed a mild psychosis (which lasted longer than a month, but went away right after the problem was resolved)? Would it be possible to diagnose the person w/schizophrenia? Wouldn't it be MORE appropriate to diagnose them w/ a psychotic break and bereavement, or something like that? If the symptoms could be diagnosed as something less, shouldn't they be? If a person was not listened to, and given the full treatment for schizophrenia, then couldn't that actually hurt them more? Thank you so much for your answers!

It seems strange that a normal reaction to a life event should be called Major Depression. I think of Depression as being an imbalance, but I guess that it isn't always. If a person is diagnosed w/sz, the can loose all rights. No one really listens to them when they say that they have been misdiagnosed. A certain drug that was used a few years ago could cause the person to gain a lot of weight if they weren't warned of the drugs effects. They could be given shock treatments. They could be in and out of mental wards for the rest of their lives.

Schizophrenia does not resolve, and would not be an appropriate diagnosis in this case.

Brief Psychotic Disorder (298,8) is also technically inaccurate (though probably correct in "spirit"), because the episode was more than one month in duration.

The best dx in this case is probably Major Depressive Disorder with mood congruent psychotic features (296.24).

If what you say is the truth of the matter, the person should've been diagnosed with Major Depression with Psychotic features, not Schizophrenic. As for the treatment being harmful, it could be or may not be. It depends on what drugs the mis-diagnosed person received.

Went away after what problem was resolved? That could be key.

What you are saying makes sense, however, there are other traits of schizophrenia that typically make the dx. Disorganized thinking is a hallmark. Detachment and attachment avoidant are others. Of course, delusions and hallucinations, but those are part of any psychosis. Depression is not required.

Five years of bereavement is an extended period, and it'd really depend on what that bereavement entailed. Depression and withdrawal or detachment, disorganized thinking, and irrationality?

Antipsychotics are used for psychotic depression and schizophrenia. It's basically the same med therapy. If those around the person describe behaviour typical of schizophrenia, then that probably is the right dx. If not, then it might be worth a shot to discontinue the APs and see what happens. Unfortunately, the person is truly dependent on the judgment of others since in either state, s/he is not self-aware enough to judge. (That's one of the cruelties of mental illness.)

Naturally, if meds were discontinued and the person did not deteriorate in thinking and did not go psychotic again, schizo was the wrong dx.

To my knowledge, bipolar mania gets confused with schizophrenia, psychotic depression less so.

Btw, schizophrenia with periods of depression and/or mania is schizoaffective disorder.